From: "Kevin Carson" <kevin_carson-AT-hotmail.com>
Subject: Re: owned vs. free market
Date: Wed, 06 Aug 2003 16:22:02 +0000


>From: Ali Kazmi <thekazmis2001-AT-yahoo.com>
 >
>how does a free market equate to no privileged class,
>no landlords, no usurers? or to put it another way, no
>ownership of property, no capital or renting of
>capital?

In its original sense, privilege meant "private law," a special status 
accorded to a certain group by the state.  In this sense, landlords and 
usurers are privileged by the state and given special protections from the 
action of the free market.  It is the state's intervention in the market (by 
enforcing absentee titles to land and restricting entry to the credit 
market) that allows landlords and usurers to charge monopoly prices for 
access to land and credit, which would otherwise fall to labor cost (i.e., 
the labor value of buildings and improvements on land, and of labor cost of 
administering bank loans).

>
>Cheers.
>
>Ali
>
>
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