File spoon-archives/aut-op-sy.archive/aut-op-sy_2001/aut-op-sy.0112, message 101


Date: Thu, 13 Dec 2001 12:11:17 -0700
From: jbrandon <jbrandon-AT-maildrop.srv.ualberta.ca>
Subject: RE: AUT: marx question


Hello,

For my part, I found it worthwhile to think about the problem historically.  I 
will try to give a brief and partial view of what is admittedly a complex 
problem.  This at least is my reading of Marx:

In European feudal-peasant economy, production was largely for use or given 
over to the lord, church etc, in kind.  Such markets that did exist involved 
the exchange of surpluses.  The ratios of trade among commodities were 
determined largly by custom.  All peasants were commanded by the sin of adam 
to labour, but that labour was never disassociated from daily life, but 
instead was enmesched in tradition and culture.

Around the sixteenth century (though some would prefer to date this to the 
C14th), European merchants began to accumulate riches from their colonial 
plunder.  At the same time, the state and higher nobles were enclosing the 
common lands that had previously served to supplement the livelihood of 
peasant communities.  The coming together of the landless poor and the monied 
class of merchants marks the beginning of capitalism proper.

At first it was conducted on a small scale, still in the peasant households.  
In the time that the peasants might have previously used to tend their plots 
on the commons, they now used to make products for the merchant.  Still, at 
this time, the peasants retained control over the productive process.  Their 
labour was still concrete and dedicated toward the their traditional household 
skills of weaving, spinning, tailoring etc.  In order for the merchant to make 
a profit, he had to either use his power to pay them less than the value of 
their labour(i.e. to give them only a days wages for two days work), or find 
customers willing to pay for the products above their value (to sell one days 
product, for two days wages). This is the merchant's principle, "buy low, sell 
dear".

So long as production occurs out of view from the capitalist, their are limits 
to its profitability.  However, if capitalist invites workers into a factory 
he owns and controls, then he can oversee the whole process.  Instead of 
buying coats from the peasants directly, now he buys the only their capacity 
for labour.  This he may pay at its full value, and still realise a profit.  
Here is how:

The coat is really a materialised form of a certain quantity of labour, say 
eight hours.  Let us assume the price of a coat is fifty dollars, and that 
fifty dollars a day is what it costs to keep a worker alive, ready to work and 
reproduce.  The capitalist can derive surplus value in one of two ways, from 
extending the working day longer than eight hours, so that the worker produces 
1 1/2 coats a day, or by intensifying production, by breaking down the work 
process and extending the division of labour.  Once the worker has sold her 
labour power, for admittedly a fair price , 50$/day, then she no longer has 
the power to complain about how she spends that time, since it is no longer 
her own.

The difference between labour and labour power is essentially the difference 
between concrete activity of a person under their own control, and the 
abstracted, alienated activity of workers under capitalism.  This is why it is 
the purchase and sale of labour power that is at the root of capitalist 
exploitation.

I hope this helps,
Josh


>===== Original Message From mike posner <idlehandsdistro-AT-yahoo.com> ====>Hello
>Just joined this list today.  My question is what does
>marx mean when he says that the capitalist buys labor
>power, as opposed to labor?  It's been baffling me for
>a while and I haven't found anyone that could explain
>it....
>also, is Jean Barrot's book Critique of the SI still
>available anywhere?  Haven't been able to find it, and
>it seems like it'd be an interesting read.
>thanks
>mike
>
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