Date: 09 Aug 96 18:05:53 EDT From: Chris Burford <100423.2040-AT-CompuServe.COM> Subject: rts2-12 OK. Same problem as before. Looks good and sensible. Some of the language and formulations obscure, and may conceal hidden depths. A caution I have is that it is such an attractive structure for an argument to set up two models and then a third which answers the weaknesses of the other two. How widespread is the characterisation of schools of philosophy being on the one hand either empiricist or on the other realist/idealist? And is there really a bimodal distribution on this continuum, with some real justification for talking about two models rather than a spectrum. For example I may have missed the latest research on psychosis, but I understand that it is hard to demonstrate a bimodal distibution between schizophrenia and manic depressive disorder in research, and in clinical practice the boundary presents problems everyday. Everyday I wonder about the "reality" of schizophrenia. And a technical question because I am picking up a tendency among admirers of Bhaskar to intials, what is TMSA? If there are more of these, at some stage a glossary would help. Otherwise I presume we will soon be moving on to the next passage. Chris Burford London.
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