From: shmage-AT-pipeline.com Date: Tue, 17 Sep 1996 03:24:56 GMT Subject: Causal law and the silent dog In RTS 2-1.4, Bhaskar writes: "Moreover, it is not true, even from the point of view of the immanent logic of a science, that what we can know to exist is just a part of what we can know. For a law may exist and be known to exist without our knowing the law. Much scientific research has in fact the same logical character as detection. In a piece of criminal detection, the detective knows that a crime has been committed and some facts about it but he does not know, or at least cannot yet prove, the identity of the criminal." I fail to see how a law can be *known* to exist while itself remaining unknown. The detection analogy seems to suggest the opposite. In one of the most famous Sherlock Holmes stories, "Silver Blaze," the consulting detective was asked to solve the murder of a man who had been found beaten to death at the same time that a prize race horse in his keeping had been discovered to have been stolen. However, >from a single fact--that a dog did not bark--Sherlock was able to deduce that the case was that indeed no crime had taken place, and he was able to prove his conclusion by pointing out where the missing horse was to be found. Of course, scientists can, and usually do, assume a priori that any phenomenon subject to study is capable of subsumption under a causal law (or, rather, a set of causal laws). But how can this assumption be transformed into knowledge of a concrete case? Doyle's (medical) scientific model seems to suggest that it is accomplished by first critically evaluating the actual phenomenon and stripping away all preconceived notions of its nature, and then by successfully acting in practice to affect material reality in a determinate way that would be possible only if the lawful nature of the phenomenon as deduced corresponded in some isomorphic way with the lawful reality underlying the phenomenon. Is this, or is it not, problematic for Bhaskarian Critical Realism? Shane Mage
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