From: "Simon Beesley" <simonb-AT-beesleys.freeserve.co.uk>
Subject: Re: Bourdieu and Objectivity
Date: Tue, 6 Jun 2000 08:39:43 +0100


Kent,

"i would only add that B. makes the point over and over again which you can
dispute or not dispute, but its tied to language and human behavior and
organizations that the logic of practice that applies to other cultures MUST
be applied to "scienctific" practice and that in the process he is
displacing this common meaning of "science" which you casually rely upon"

I wouldn't dream of disputing this. It's obviously true, undeniable. But if we
accept that the logic of practice applies to scientific practice as to
everything else, does it follow that we must accept the dispositional account of
scientific method? If so, I would be grateful if someone could untangle what
appear to be gross contradictions in the conception. And once that has been
done, perhaps too someone could explain to me (in simple terms) how the
Bourdieusian system of dispositions can be transmitted and produced.

Imagine that I am one of your students who is having difficulty getting his head
round this concept. He's read Kripke and found Kripke's objections to the
concept of a disposition (as used in the philosophy of mind) utterly convincing.
Following Kripke he doesn't understand how a dispositional explanation of
cognitive practice can make any provision for a concept of error. Now he's
asking you to help him out with these apparent contradictions and anomalies.

Regards
Simon


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