File spoon-archives/bourdieu.archive/bourdieu_2001/bourdieu.0111, message 34


Date: Thu, 15 Nov 2001 10:44:01 -0700
From: "Neil Wieloch" <neilw-AT-hass3.hass.usu.edu>
Subject: Re: discussion group


Justin - 

I think you raise an interesting question that is difficult to answer:

"To what degree do undifferentiated societies have
undiffentiated forms of capital?"

The reason that I think it is difficult to answer is because it is hard to distinguish beteen "actual" differentiation and the forms of differentiation (i.e. capital) that Bourdieu himself indicates.  What I mean is this: as we follow Bourdieu's ethnographic work over time he seems to progressively go through greater pains to uncover the logic of the symbolic.  He also tends to focus more of his attention on Western culture.  He does both of these things while he continues to develop his own conceptual perspective.  So, although we end up seeing greater differentiation in his later work the question (your question) becomes whether this differentiation is due to true differences in (differentiated/undifferentiated) societies or whether it is due to differences in Bourdieu's changing approach.  Therefore,  it becomes difficult to distinguish Bourdieu's variations in interpretation of the forms of differentiation from those social identities within the societies themselves.  I guess the only true test would be to have Bourdieu himself re-visit the Kablye with his most recent episteme...

(At least that's my read.)

- Neil

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