From: jcharles-AT-computer.org Date: Thu, 03 Aug 95 13:16:58 est Subject: question on Foucault & Power discussion Reg Lilly wrote: "[Foucault] therefore also implies that all the concepts descriptive of power's functioning were also univocal. However, what happens if the symmetry between power and "target(s)" or effects is seen to be asymmetrical? What if the economy of power is not closed but admits of excess, pointless expenditure, etc? What happens if, rather than seeing power as that for which there is no exteriority (viz. "resistance is never in a position of exteriority in relation to power" 95), one conceives power qua intelligibility as itself conditioned and conditional in every instance." These are very interesting points, but could you unpack a few of them a little further? In particular, while I understand your point about the problems inherent in any mystical, transcendental, catch-all meta-term, what do you have in mind when you refer to the asymmetries of power and "targets?" Can you give me an illustrative "concrete" example of excess or pointless expenditure? jc Los Alamitos, CA, 2800 miles from where I should be ------------------
Display software: ArchTracker © Malgosia Askanas, 2000-2005