Date: Fri, 20 Mar 1998 20:43:51 -0500 Subject: Re: HAB: Differentiations of understanding Gary, Sorry to be slow in responding. I appreciated your remarks. A few comments: >You write: "Habermas thinks that a certain sort of practice, viz. >argumentation, is what permits the development of >propositionally-differentiated speech. (A view that he picks up from >Dummett,...)." On the contrary, Habermas thinks that the childhood >development of propositionally-differentiated speech (in social >evolution and through cognitive development) permits, *eventually*, an >adult practice of argumentation. This gets into a somewhat murky area of Habermas's thought. Strictly speaking, the correct thing to say would be that the two arise simultaneously (co-developmentally?). The emergence of propositionally differentiated speech occurs in social evolution with the integration of the three prelinguistic roots of communicative action (TCA ch. 5, =A72C). Without getting into the details, I take the general idea to be that the integration of these three components is what gives speech acts their illocutionary-mode/propositional content structure, *and* what transfers the understanding of speech acts onto the basis of criticizable validity claims. Thus he describes his aim as one explaining how "validity claims would have emerged from the integration of the narrower, paleosymbolically anchored concept of moral authority with the other components of speech acts."(72) Since understanding validity claims involves knowing how they can be discursively redeemed, I take it then that Habermas considers mastery of at least the rudimentary components of argumentation to be necessary step in the development of linguistic competence. (Putting the claim negatively makes it seem more obvious to me: you couldn't possibly learn a language first, then learn how to use it to argue with people. This is, incidentally, just another way of formulating the rejection of the analytic/synthetic distinction.) The idea that children learn inferential relations early also does not strike me as wild (most of the time when we answer the dreaded "why?" question, aren't we conveying an inference-license?). Habermas's intuition is usually formulated in something more like the following way: In order to be using propositionally differentiated speech (as opposed to mere signalling), you have to be able to distinguish between the different ways in which your speech act can fail, e.g. whether the hearer rejects it because what you said was false, or because it was inappropriate for you to say it at a party, or whatever. Habermas claims that in order to get this, you have to be able to put yourself in the position of an *arguing* opponent and consider the reasons they might have for rejecting your speech-act offer. So the different components of the speech act are distinguished by the different kinds of validity claims they raise, and understanding the validity claims means understanding the reasons that could be give for or against them. >Also, his brief mentions of Dummett in _TCA1_ and _PMT_ have nothing to >do with claims about a relationship between propositionally >differentiated speech (illocutionary and locutionary aspect) and >argument, but rather Dummett's *corroborative* view of truth and meaning >which Habermas developed from Wittgenstein, Apel, Peirce, and >Austin-Searle, prior to 1980 (as McCarthy makes clear in _CT of JH_, >1979). Yeah, I was editorializing somewhat. Habermas clearly *came up* with the position that understanding speech involves knowing how its associated validity claims could be discursively redeemed before he read Dummett, but he didn't actually have an *argument* for this position before that time. This is because the compositionality requirement, which is what motivates Dummett's position, is the only thing that provides any reason to believe that knowledge of meaning *consists of* knowledge of justification-conditions. This is because the rules of inferences (understood in the Toulmin sense, i.e. pragmatically) are what give you the substitution relations that determine the contribution that words make to the meaning of sentences in which they occur. Anyhow, that's just my little opinion. >But what kind of "connections" are these?, you ask. "The must plausible >suggestion so far has been: inferential." I disagree. A more plausible >suggestion is perceptual, in the embodied sense of cognitive holism People have all kinds of fancy theories, but the basic objection to perceptual relations has been that they don't give you compositionality. Inferential relations, on the other hand, do. This is what led Wittgenstein to abandon the "picture theory of meaning" from the Tractatus, along with the representationalist paradigm. The way the pieces of a sentence fit together is just not the same as the way perceptual objects are configured. I haven't come across anything to convince me otherwise, but then again, I haven't been looking all that hard. It does seem to me, however, that if you don't buy Habermas's inferentialism you can't really begin to play ball with the theory. The whole thing would be just wrong. (Of course it might be, but then where's the fun in talking about it?) Joe --- from list habermas-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---
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