Date: Tue, 20 Apr 1999 22:04:55 +1000
Subject: Re: HAB: Re: communicative attitude and justificatory force


G'day all,

Vic's point seems to hold water, I think.  Has Habermas done anything with
the notion of 'communicative competence' of late?  Does he confine
'communicative action' to the scope of 'citizens' (eg rather than 'humans')
as a way of trying to approximate 'those who might reasonably be expected
to share communicative competence in the context of any particular
communicative episode'?  Am I way off the rails of relevance here?

Cheers,
Rob.




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