From: <kenneth.mackendrick-AT-utoronto.ca> Subject: HAB: Lacan and Habermas: understanding as control? Date: Sun, 14 Jan 2001 12:42:19 -0500 (Eastern Standard Time) On Sat, 13 Jan 2001 19:31:00 -0800 (PST) Gary D <gedavis1-AT-yahoo.com> wrote: > K: ...The unconscious can only be apprehended in language - discourse > G: But not discourse in JHs sense; discourse in the mundane linguistic-theoretical sense of a piece of conversation, but unconscious-as-language is only validly an *analogy*. And discourse isnt constructive here (not that I enjoy being disagreeable). Freud distinguishes between two uses of the term: as an adjective, it simply refers to mental processes that are not the subject of conscious attention (what you mentioned to be nonconscious). As a noun (das Unbewuszte) it designates one of the psychical systems of mental structure. The unconscious, for Freud, marks a radical separation from consciousness by repression and thus cannot enter the conscious-preconscious system without distortion. Now, for Lacan (after the 1950s), the unconscious cannot simply be equated with that which is repressed. This is obviously where Habermas's interpretation of Freud and Lacan's differ. Lacan argues against most of Freud's followers who reduced the uncs to being 'merely the seat of the insticts.' Against this, Lacan argues that the unconscious is neither primordial nor instinctual - it is primarily linguistic: the unconscious structured like a language (Seminar III, pg. 167). This linguistic approach is qualified by Lacan's arguing that the reason why the unconscious is structured like a language is that we only grasp the unconscious finally when it is explicated, in that part of it which is articulated by passing into words (Seminar VII, p. 32). Lacan further describes the unconscious as a discourse - "the unconscious is the discourse of the Other" (and this is where Habermas's understanding of discourse isn't that far off from Lacan's). This means that one should see in the unconscious the effects of speech on the subject (Seminar XI, p. 126). The subject here is the subject of the unconscious. The unconscious, in other words, is the effects of the signifier on the subject, in that the signifier is what is repressed and what returns in the formulations of the unconscious (symptoms, parapraxes, jokes, dreams). Again, the unconscious is structured as a function of the symbolic. In this sense, the unconscious is not interior, since speech and language are intersubjective phenomena, the unconscious is 'transindividual (Ecrits, p. 49) - the unconscious is 'outside.' If the unconscious appears interior, this is an effect of the imaginary... which runs interference between the subject and the Other. For Lacan, because of this, the unconscious is irreducible, so that aim of analysis cannot be to make conscious the unconscious. Two other terms are relevant: memory (the unconscious is a kind of symbolic history) and knowledge (a kind of knowledge anyway, an 'unknown knowledge' - something that does not fail to be). The similarities between Habermas and Lacan here are interesting. The unconscious as radically intersubjective. However, where Habermas and Lacan depart is the 'placing' of this intersubjectivity. Lacan argues that it is exterior, Habermas argues that it is interior. The aim for Habermas is to resymbolize what has been repressed or distorted (theoretically guided self-reflection), the aim for Lacan is not necessarily to 'cure' the analysand, rather, to express truth (which is why Lacan sees psychoanalysis as a science). For Habermas, so it would seem, Lacan is guilty of an objectivist fallacy. However this anticipated response does not do justice to Lacan's understanding of truth. Without going into these distinctions I'll point out this. One of the key differences between Lacan and Habermas has to do with the effective 'power' of self-reflection. For Lacan, simply because one understands something does not mean that they can control it. For Habermas, understanding always implies control (this goes back to KHI where Habermas talks about the ego's 'controlled employment' - and is part of the reason why Whitebook takes Habermas to task in his essay on Nature and Habermas). After a great deal of reflection, one of the ESSENTIAL differences between Habermas and Lacan comes down to this: For Habermas, the power of reflection, linked through the illocutionary dimensions of language, necessarily entail a merger between understanding and self-control. If we understand the genesis of a symptom, we can control it. For Habermas, it cannot be otherwise. If we understand the source of a communicative disturbance, then we can act differently. For Lacan understanding - which occurs through the traversing of fantasy, does not entail control. Simply because one takes responsibility for everything; conscious and unconscious through the traversing of fantasy, a place between desire and drive - what Jane Malmo (Jane B. Malmo, "Towards a Limitless Love: From Symptom to Sinthôme in Milton's Samson Agonistes" New Formations 23 Summer 1994, 90ff) refers to as "being in one's own power" - does not mean that one is under one's own control. For instance, in the movie Fight Club, Jack's identification with the sinthome, the point at which the real, imaginary and symbolic order entwine, is a recognition and a taking responsibility for what he has desired all along: a 'second' death. So, even though Jack takes responsibility for his actions - even those which were beyond his control - this does not mean that he can make Tyler disappear voluntarily (Tyler is Jack's psychotic hallucination). Arriving at this threshold, Jack undertakes a unique and profoundly singular act - he puts a gun into his mouth and pulls the trigger in a violent "passage a la act." Ie. Jack recognizes that Tyler is part of him, but this recognition doesn't allow him to control Tyler. The truth of Jack's desire, then, brings him to a point and recognition of helplessness. His 'suicidal' act, then, is something he undergoes as a means of transformation. As Malmo notes, "Such an act cannot be generalized as a set of rules, or written down among the laws that everyone obeys." For Habermas, 'therapy' ends up with a 'cure' - it links truth with the intersubjective coordination of action. For Lacan, truth is must be separated from praxis. Simply because one understands, and even if one is motivated to change, it does not mean that they can operate autonomously. Habermas makes this connection: between communicative freedom and communicative action. Lacan does not. This is CRUCIAL, absolutely crucial for understanding the differences between Lacanian psychoanalysis and Habermasian social theory - furthermore, if Lacan is correct, much of Habermas speech act theory must be revisited. A point not to be missed here is this: through the traversing of fantasy an actor can change their actions and coordinate their activity in a more harmonious manner - but not necessarily. Naturally, the Habermasian response would be this: either the analysand has not 'properly' understood the problem, or, Lacan is guilty of failing to make adequate connections between linguistification and communicative action. And a Lacanian rejoinder might bet his: traversing the fantasy / identification with the sinthome leads to the recognition of the way in which someone enjoys (the truth of their desire). But this, in and of itself, is not a guarantee of 'autonomy' - it simply means that the person in question is, in principle, capable of articulating their interests - is able to give reasons for and so on. But this does not mean that their desire enters into communicative harmony with others because the linguistification of desire does not reduce / return desire to the public sphere - rather - points to the unique way in which the individual relates to their jouissance - which is radically singular. This, it seems to me, is congruent with Maeve Cooke's argument that communicative and instrumental reason are born of the same moment, the idea that instrumental action isn't simply parasitical on communication action (as Habermas argues on the first page of his essay "What is Universal Pragmatics?"). So, just to say a bit more here. I don't think I've misunderstood Habermas here. Clearly, for Habermas, rationality and communication are linked through the illocutionary dimension of language. I also don't think I'm misunderstood Lacan on this point. The crux of the matter is 'what happens at the point of understanding.' Does it give us control or insight? On some level it gives us both, simultaneously, but as Malmo notes: being in ones own power is not the same as being in ones own control. > A semiotic notion of language (like Lacans) cannot capture the illocutionary or actional character of the unconscious INTERacting like (*analogously* to how) language goes. It isn't that Lacan fails to capture the illocutionary aspect of language. Lacan's comments about the transsubjectivity of language should make this clear - Lacan isn't guilty of semanticism. Lacan is firmly aware that in saying something the speaker does something. Habermas brings together the categories of meaning and force - emphasizing the rational foundation illocutionary force. If I'm not mistaken, illocutionary force consists of an actors capacity to motivate a hearer to act on the premise of a commitment to seriousness - sincerity. I'm not questioning this. I'm not going to dispute the binding/bonding power of communicative utterances. My point is that this is only an ideal case - because communication isn't limited to communicative action - and if we do not take communicative action to be primary, then Lacan's explanation is plausible - even within the general confines of Habermas's general framework. > K: Ok, I'm going to stop using the word "trauma" and remain consistent with Lacan's terms: jouissance. > G: I thought this was a Habermas list. The more I get into this - the closer Habermas and Lacan seem to get. That's part of my trouble here. I have a resistance to seeing the closeness of the two thinkers because I'm working on a Lacanian critique... so the differences are exaggerated... at the same time, the differences are so great that they're almost mutually exclusive... the only way I can make sense of it is through a kind of free association between the two... and some of that work-product is what you get here. Overreading, misreading, antireading are the only strategies that I've got to differentiate the two in a way that can be communicated coherently - of course my reach exceeds my grasp. I understand that you are interested in a discussion that is wholly parasitic on Habermas's work... but I hope there are Habermasians who see 'outside' critique, as sketchy or ill-formed as it might be, worthwhile and productive. It takes years and years to understand Habermas, to check his sources, to work through some of the passages that are best understood in German and not in English... but Lacan is no different - the same can be said for Kant and Hegel, Gadamer... Freud, Klein... Zizek, Salecl, Zupancic... So I very much appreciate your patience, but I would ask for a little more speculative-space as well. > K: Without going into a summary of Lacan's mirror phase (the imaginary identification with a fiction) - basically Lacan's thesis is this: when we learn a language it is imposed on us by the Other. > G: This applies only to authoritarian parenting styles. Good parents love to pretend their child can speak and understand more than can be verified (i.e., theres good openness), as part of the romance of shared word play. If anything, the baby seduces mommy into word play (in healthy parenting). By the way, the so-called mirror phase has been disproved by clinical infant research; it is indeed a fiction or adult reconstructions, but it's not indicative of what infants really go through. The mirror phase has been disproved? So the ego is not a product of the symbolic order? Wo Es war, soll Ich werden nevermore, eh? I'll agree with you here though: the mirror phase is a fiction - but without it "perspective" is impossible. > G: Again, Ken, it might be good to read some stuff on how children acquire language, according to cognitive psychologists of the past two decades or so, rather than depending heavily on Lacans speculations from clinical practice with adults. Lacan is indebted, in many instances, to the work of Melanie Klein, whom I believe did have something to say about mother-child relations... as far as I can see - there is no necessary incongruence between cognitive psychology and the mirror stage. After all, how *we* see ourselves isn't identical to how others see us, or how we actually are. The mirror stage is simply another formulation of narcissism - something which Habermas takes full stock of in various places. For Habermas, narcissism can be overcome... my critique, which has been so for a long time now, has been this: after narcissism we would not longer recognize ourselves. In other words: some degree of narcissism is necessary in order to maintain the semblance of subjectivity. Now Habermas's charge against this is subjectivism. But my countercharge against Habermas is a false universalism... Habermas privileges a certain kind of ego in his deliberative model - the so-called 'post-conventional self.' The Lacanian rejoinder being: the subject (ego) is not substance. Sidenote: For more details on the relation of Klein and Habermas - see Emilia Steuerman, The Bounds of Reason: Habermas, Lyotard and Melanie Klein on Rationality, 2000). I'm going to have to let go of the rest, not because I don't have counterobjections but because I don't have the time or energy to run through it all. Habermas's reading of Freud is informed by Hegel - so my comments regarding Hegel are not out of place - so going back to Hegel, as Lacan does, and as Habermas does, is fruit for conversation and debate - especially regarding the dynamics of subjectivity (and even more relevant because Habermas has recently published two [or more?] articles on Hegel). ken --- from list habermas-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---
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