From: "Rafe Champion" <rchamp-AT-bigpond.net.au> Subject: HAB: Re: New: Habermas on detranscendentalized use of reason Date: Sun, 23 Sep 2001 20:11:03 +1000 Gary Davis wrote: > Habermas focuses "on the idealizing performative presuppositions of > communicative action," not in order to again "explicat[e] the concept > of 'communicative reason',' but rather to focus on "the genealogical > examination of the context in which this conception originated" (14). > Though the conception begins with Kant, Habermas's central intent is > to examine the meaning of detranscendentalization. "Certainly, there > is a family resemblance between these presuppositions and Kantian > concepts" (ibid), but "detranscendentalization signifies a profoundly > invasive intervention into his basic architectonic" (15). > For the benefit of people who are not long-time students of Habermas and critical theory, is it possible to explain in clear and simple terms the problem that is being addressed by this new paper from Habermas? Secondly, is it a theory that can be verified by evidence, or does it give rise to any interesting evidence-based research? Thirdly, if it does not link to scientific research, does it link to moral or political issues? Fourthly, what difference does it make whether the theory is true or false, and how would we tell whether it is true or false? Rafe Champion --- from list habermas-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---
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