Date: Wed, 09 Sep 1998 19:28:47 -0700
From: Mike Staples <mstaples-AT-argusqa.com>
Subject: Re: Translation Question


henry sholar wrote:

> It's from Aristotle's Ethics, i do believe,
> but i don't know a transliteration.
>
> Kiesel hints at "for its own sake."
>
> What are you doing in that text, Michael?

Same thing I'm doing in all the texts...thrashing about. I happened upon
this for-the-sake-of-which again because I got to talking about goals
and purpose with someone once again. I began to follow the idea of a
goal (with respect to psychotherapy, wouldn't you know) to the tapestry
of gaol/cause/purpose. On page 185 Heidegger launches into a section on
Freedom and world. In the second paragraph he talks about the idea of
"sake", which Michael E. has spoken of in more detail. Heidy puts the
words sake and final purpose together in the same paragraph. He asks
"What is that for the sake of whichDasein exists?" and there is also
"What is the final purpose for which Dasein exists?" Do you think this
is the same question?

Seems as though Aristotle had in mind that "Cause" and "Purpose" were
similar (I'm on real shakey ground here, Henry). I'm thinking of final
cause, I guess. Had in mind that a final "goal" is that which causes
movement toward it. This movement is purposeful with respect to its
movement toward its goal. Is that how Aristotle would frame it? Does
Heidegger have a quarrel here?

Michael S.



     --- from list heidegger-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---