File spoon-archives/heidegger.archive/heidegger_2001/heidegger.0110, message 126


Date: Fri, 26 Oct 2001 12:59:38 -0500
From: allen scult <allen.scult-AT-drake.edu>
Subject: Re: Heidegger: Re: Esse


>
>Could someone explain or re-explain the philosophical consequences 
>of this discussion of presence or absence of the copula in various 
>languages? I started reading this thread long after it started, so 
>please forgive the request for what is probably obvious to those who 
>have been involved.
>
>I am interested because many (if not most) Asian languages lack the 
>copula in their sentence structures. Since the discussion of a 
>"copula-less Aramaic" is rather speculative, perhaps it would help 
>to discuss current languages which lack copula.

Welcome Anthony,

It seems to me the point is whether Language, that is Die Sprache, 
that is Parole, that is logos lacks the copula.  And it seems to me 
it couldn't BE otherwise, or I wouldn't BE able to say what I just 
did and have it make self-evident sense to everyone but the cat.

Allen
-- 
  Allen Scult					Dept. of Philosophy
HOMEPAGE: " Heidegger on Rhetoric and Hermeneutics":	Drake University
http://www.multimedia2.drake.edu/s/scult/scult.html	Des Moines, Iowa 50311
PHONE: 515 271 2869
FAX: 515 271 3826


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