Date: Fri, 26 Oct 2001 12:59:38 -0500 From: allen scult <allen.scult-AT-drake.edu> Subject: Re: Heidegger: Re: Esse > >Could someone explain or re-explain the philosophical consequences >of this discussion of presence or absence of the copula in various >languages? I started reading this thread long after it started, so >please forgive the request for what is probably obvious to those who >have been involved. > >I am interested because many (if not most) Asian languages lack the >copula in their sentence structures. Since the discussion of a >"copula-less Aramaic" is rather speculative, perhaps it would help >to discuss current languages which lack copula. Welcome Anthony, It seems to me the point is whether Language, that is Die Sprache, that is Parole, that is logos lacks the copula. And it seems to me it couldn't BE otherwise, or I wouldn't BE able to say what I just did and have it make self-evident sense to everyone but the cat. Allen -- Allen Scult Dept. of Philosophy HOMEPAGE: " Heidegger on Rhetoric and Hermeneutics": Drake University http://www.multimedia2.drake.edu/s/scult/scult.html Des Moines, Iowa 50311 PHONE: 515 271 2869 FAX: 515 271 3826 --- from list heidegger-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---
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