Date: Mon, 4 Feb 2002 23:35:55 +0000 From: Tommy Beavitt <tommy-AT-scoraig.com> Subject: Value (was Dasein) At 2:35 pm -0800 4/2/02, John Foster wrote: >Values are not reducible in all cases nor commensurate. For instance >economic values are not reducible to ethical values, and are not >commensurate. Ethical values and economic values are do not commense with or >from some other primary value. Ethical values are not equivalent to economic >values; they are *essentially different*. Although some ethical values have >economic value, ethical value (or worth) cannot be 'priced' in a market >transaction. There is nothing I have to disagree with here. I presume that you wrote this paragraph to reinforce my statements about value rather than to criticise them? >Ethical values are highly subjective, as are moral judgements about the >character of a person. Economic values are objective and express only a >transaction price (the value which is experienced by the good or service may >constitute the subjective value which forms the ethical, but it may be that >the value is environmental (Hiedegger analyzed this in *The Hermenuetics of >Facticity*), or it may mental (psychological, spiritual, intellectual, >artistic, et cetera). Yes, I take your point about the difference between subjective and objective values. Thanks for clarifying this for me. It is true that the market is an attempt to objectify value. Whether it can be said to have succeeded in this enterprise is, I think, controversial. Economists and politicians always celebrate when GDP is bigger, weep when it is smaller. Because they can attach a number to a transaction and aggregate these numbers together, it is said to be an objective measure. >There are 'non-market transactions' which are not considered by economics; >marriage, adoption, gifts, et cetera. Non of the non-market transactions are >especially of any interest to economists, except in terms of policy. >Services such as 'unpaid child care' are considered as forms of *national >wealth* but are not considered part of the GDP.... You rightly point to all the value exchanging transactions which take place in a society or a community which are not objectified in this way. This doesn't this make them any less valuable to those who engage in them. But the value these transactions convey is entirely subjective. >Economic values are expressed in 'prices' and modern economics does not use >the term 'value' any longer except to describe preferences which may be >personal and impersonal. I am not sure that I agree with you here. Value is an extremely important concept in economics. It is one of those buzz words that when included in a pitch or job application can greatly increase the chances of success. I am just reading an article in the Journal of Japanese Trade and Industry which discusses the need for Japanese firms to "add value" to the goods they produce. This is a euphemism for "make the consumer feel better about buying this product rather than another one." It can be achieved by packaging, advertising, customer service, etc. You might, for example, have a sales assistant do a dance around a new TV set. That would be adding value. Or you might provide a karaoke machine and somebody to facilitate the procedure in a bar where alcohol was being consumed. That would be "adding value" to the alcohol. I agree with you that this is a "description of preferences", but that doesn't decrease the importance of the concept to economic theory. I realise that this may seem to be wandering off topic from a Heidegger list, but for me this represents an important distinction. A Sartrean would have no difficulty in using the term "value" in the same way that a post-industrial economist would. It is obvious that it pertains to both the customer and the supplier in any transaction, the being-for-itself, who benefits, or, at least, feels that he or she benefits. It is also obvious that there is nothing in principle wrong in attaching a number to a value transaction and aggregating transactions to produce abstractions such as GDP. At least, this is true of my interpretation of Sartre. But it would seem that Heidegger would have difficulty with this concept and might seek to negate it by insisting on distinguishing between the value of transactions that are objectivised in an economist's spreadsheet and the Value that, it seems to me, is being claimed to exist objectively and quite apart from any subjective value judgement(s) and its/their quantification/aggregation. Economists are busy applying values to environmental and social goods. There is even a claim that these environmental and social goods are universal or at least global in their application. Unfortunately world history seems to be taking a retrograde turn in this respect with avocations of unilateralism and "exceptionalism" by certain countries who unfortunately have a great effect on whether this enterprise is likely to succeed. The attainment to a single global perspective, much vaunted but seldom achieved, seems less likely, even in theory. But it is still possible to have an economic perspective of social and environmental value, say from the perspective of a particular country. This closed system of course breaks down at the borders which may be characterised by the import of environmental and social goods, the export of "bads", such as pollution etc., and the use of violence to maintain such a separation. I am, obviously, hoping that some of you Heideggerians can help me out of this impasse. But I doubt that any claims by individuals to have a unversal perspective will be of any use. Also, I am not sure from what perspective any distinction between that value objectified by economists and that Value objectified by Heidegger via Dasein, will be meaningful. Any comments, including those that state that I am missing the point, will be very welcome! Tommy Beavitt --- from list heidegger-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---
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