Date: Thu, 15 May 1997 16:42:16 -0700 (PDT) From: Lois Shawver <rathbone-AT-crl.com> Subject: Re: lyotard Clifford, Lyotard doesn't say that the metanarratives are lost, but that we are incredulous of them. There is a world of difference between those two statements. The Freudian (or Marxian, Hegelian, logical positivst, whatever) metanarratives are still there, but they are endorsed now by followers. Even the followers, today, are eclectic in their mixing of the elements of one school and another. Instead of turning to what is written in the canon, we turn to each other and engage in discourse (as we are doing here.) The canon is still there, but its role is different. We still read Freud, but he is not the last word. The last word is never spoken. It is constantly evolving in a paralogical medicum of dialogue that is continuously trying to find ways to express what cannot be said within the language-game of the metanarratives. In place of dogmatic authority (read that "metanarratives"), Lyotard prescribes, in my opinion, a sociology of mind. This will not yield us consensus, but it will yield us a continuous refreshing of the formulation of our concepts -- and in a world in which new fresh text is of capital value, that is the bottom line. It is difficult for me to find the essential thread of postmodernism between Lyotard and literary figures, or people from other arts. To use a Wittgensteinian phrase, there are a family of uses of the term "postmodern" and "modern". Lyotard's speaks to me, however, and to many others. Moreover, I believe its popularity has something to do with the fact that Habermas accepts a similar definition and takes the other position, embracing modernism rather than postmodernism. Do we need to find a single thread to define the term? Or can we define it locally? Calibrating our definitions to each other as well as to the authors whose works we admire? I suspect our individual answers to that question reflects how postmodern our inclinations are. ..Lois Shawver
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