Date: Sat, 3 Jan 2004 13:05:26 -0800 (PST)
From: Evgeni Pavlov <evpav-AT-yahoo.com>
Subject: politics and pure philosophy


Lydia,

> How can your division between political and pure philosophical 
> questions be maintained?  Bodies are  inevitably conceptualized/figured 
> whenever any kind of thinking takes place.

how so? not really to ask a question, cuz we all know the answers that 
were given *philosophically*, but notice the language - *inevitably*
*whenever*, *any kind* - how can you maintain that position? is there
a division between political and pure philosophical questions? - what is
the implication of this question? what does it refer to? what kind of reality is there
that supposedly either separates or doesn't separate politics and philosophy? 
WE make them separate and then they ARE separate - we aren't looking around if it is
*really* possible to separate them - for centuries mind and body were separated, 
how can we say that this is good or bad? when zizek, for example, throws around 
his *what if* things, is he really proposing to return to slavery, racism, and 
patriarchy? doesn't he simply challenge the liberal democratic Denkverbot he 
always bitches about? how is philsophical conversation possible (in other words) - 
are we really talking about anything here, or is it just an illusion of a
conversation that everyone is comfortable with? 

evgeni

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