Date: Thu, 16 Jan 1997 22:58:13 -0800 From: djones-AT-uclink.berkeley.edu (rakesh bhandari) Subject: Re: M-I: Re: 'The Doug Henwood Follow-on' What is the value of labor power: the labor time required to reproduce labor power or the actual use values required to reproduce labor in a a determinate geo-historic situation or something else? Can the former decline while the latter increases? What are the relations between the two? What is relative and absolute surplus value: do they mark actual epochs in the accumulation of capital; is Marx's distinction tenable; DO WE NEED A SEMINAR ON THE DETERMINATION OF THE VALUE OF THE LABOR POWER IN THE GLOBAL ECONOMY (We could report on works by Guglielmo Carchedi, Cyrus Bina and others)? K Jin wrote: >Without meaning to be insulting for raising such an elementary point, the >relevant question is the relationship of the wages paid in a specific >country to average wages and incomes in that country. Not an insult at all! I am thrilled that you would take the time to make so many helpful preliminary comments towards an understanding of wage determination in the global economy. As I think over your post, let me pose one very simple question: so what if the third world worker in the transnational corporation is making more than the national average for similarly skilled and arduous work in the semi-colonial country? Why is this the relevant question, instead of value-theoretic determination of the relations of production between the global capitalist and the global proletariat: a better than average paid slave is still a slave, especially if she or he is providing ever more labor time gratis to his tnc boss. Comrade, please don't pass off that bourgeois nonsense that workers, no matter how exploited, should measure their wage relative to their semi-colonial brethren! Moreover, is it nonsensical to say that capital has achieved a higher rate of exploitation (s/c+v) by building skills into plants (so to speak), thus making these plants mobile enough to move away from the first world to faraway semi-colonial locales, and then hiring labor power which is cheaper and can be worked longer and more intensively? That is, is it incorrect to say that this higher rate of exploitation is mainly the result of firms being able to depress the wage below the "moral and historical" value of labor power as it had been determined upward during the post wwII global boom? From the perspective of capital, is this not accumulation via absolute surplus value? My simple point here is that tnc employment is not intended to and will not bring third world wages anywhere near the value of labor power in terms of the use values which had come to be required for the reproduction of first world labor power (though there are indeed exceptions to this in Southeast Asia) while even increasing the labor time workers now give gratis to capital. The increase in labor time gratis is enabled by the skills built into plants (so that productivity levels at constant intensity are even approached in the third world) and then really achieved through longer days, more intensive work, and the maintainence of really low wages via fascist labor regulations. To say nothing of the circumvention of environmental regulations, which perhaps should be considered a part of the improved moral and historical wage workers had won from capital in the imperialist countries. In all these ways--the increase in labor time gratis without regular and continuous increases in the real wage, though intensity, actual labor time and pollution increases-- it seems to me that we are dealing with absolute surplus value, but of course I await further development of these basic concepts. If surplus value had been sufficient to retool the industrial structure in the first world, then capital would not have needed to undermine the value of labor power. Increased productivity could have made the production of relative surplus value possible if there had been sufficient surplus value for accumulation of better vintage fixed capital. Instead the firms find that the only way they can accumulate is by lowering the value of labor power, whether this means finding ways to flee to where that value is lower (though productivity is not higher) or beginning a full-scale, regressive assault on the very workers whose value of labor power had been determined upward through struggle, however muted, during the post world war II boom in the imperialist countries. In either case, the value of labor power which capital had come to accept during the accumulation which followed upon the massive devaluations engendered by world war is now what capital attempts to undermine. We are in a senile and vicious stage of accumulation. It follows therefore that we have entered what is indeed a new epoch with great possibilities for social change. Rakesh --- from list marxism-international-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---
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