Date: Wed, 24 Aug 1994 18:59:05 +0700
From: djones-AT-uclink.berkeley.edu (donna jones)
Subject: re:? for Steve


I know that you have gone over this territory before, so instead of
answering the following short question, you may want to refer me to a
previous post.

Marx's concept of extra surplus value is based on the fact that capitals
with the most efficient means of production are beneficiaries of value
transfer, which is in fact what motivates the productivity revolutions
characteristic of the capitalist mode of production.  But this transfer
operates at the level of many capitals.  So isn't the argument that fixed
capital or dead labor creates value true only at the level of capitalist
appearances--but not for capital as a whole? Also, when you argue that
fixed capital is productive of surpluses, do you mean productive of
use-values or value--that it transfers more than its own value?
d jones



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