Date: Fri, 12 Apr 1996 17:21:35 -0400
Subject: Re: Groups as basic unit of production


In a message dated 96-04-12 04:52:59 EDT, you write:

>The way hominds / humans interacted with nature between 3,000,000 years ago 
>and 10,000 years ago would have elements of both sorts of explanation,
>initially
>with the former dominating, ending with the later evenatually dominating.
>
>Does this explain what I meant better ? Does your question still apply ?
>If it does, could you explain what your question means more ? [ I found
>it hard to understand what you were saying ].
>
>

Well now I'm not sure if my original question applies or not, although I can
"sense" your distinction between forces of production and those of nature.
 Thank you for responding, I wish I could engage the question a bit futher
but I've too many other projects going for now.

JTWest


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