Date: Tue, 9 Apr 1996 00:39:07 -0400 Subject: Re: More on Modernism, Reason and Myth Rahul: --------- This is amusing, Leo. First you say I made no other arguments, then you answer the arguments I didn't make. Phrasing a question as a one-line attempt at humor doesn't make it less of a question. Leo: ------ Well, I guess passive-aggressive physicists have figured out how to collapse the time-space continuum. What I answered were the arguments you presented in your third post on the subject, which you began by noting how I had only selected your weakest argument in the first two posts to answer. You were correct that it was your weakest argument; it had to be so by definition because it was the only argument one could reasonably construe out of them. What I was answering were the points you made in the third post, after you announced that I had ignored them. (This is getting rather silly, and very much beside the point, but its hard to engage in substantive dialogue when each post begins with these announcements on how I am running and hiding from the your arguments.) Rahul: --------- I wouldn't tax Hobbes with Locke or Locke with Jefferson, myself. Yes, like everything else, the idea of the social contract has a contradictory legacy, and I (marginally) overstated the case. Hegel was a reactionary. Marx, who used Hegel, was not. It is, however, perfectly legitimate to claim, as many have done, that much of Hegel's oeuvre was created in an attempt ideologically to uphold the Prussian state. If you say, "But Marx was inspired by Hegel," that is simply not to the point. Leo: ------ Forgive me, but doesn't this argument take the form of an analogy as in -- Hobbes:Locke::Hegel:Marx. I am not sure exactly what this has to do with whether or not social contract theory is politically quietist, which was the issue we were discussing, or how it refutes the fact that social contract theory provided an essential foundation for the right to revolution, first expounded by Locke, but I thought the form of the argument was very interesting given that you go on to say... Rahul: --------- Analogy, on the other hand, is about the best method there is for achieving absurdity. I can make an analogy between any two things (or could if I was perhaps a hair's-breadth more creative than I am). Analogy has as much place in reasoning as final cause does in analyzing causation. If you disagree on that, your time might be more profitably spent figuring out how many angels can stand on the head of a pin. Analogy is *at best* a useful heuristic device, and, even in that capacity, misleads more often than it enlightens, unless one is very careful. Leo: ------ So are we to conclude that your previous argument "achieved absurdity", or that it was simply "analagous" to discussing how many angels can stand on the head of a pin, or just that you are a great deal more careful than the rest of us ordinary human beings so you can use analogies? Are physicists a priestly elite in the academic temple who set down the rules of logic for the faithful, but need not apply them to themselves? (Sorry if I rub it in, but your passive-aggressive approach certainly asked for it.) Now the mortal sin in my original discussion of analogy was to say: "Analogy is a form of logic, and has been since Aristotle wrote about logic." To which Rahul responds: ----------------------------------- Ah, yes, the argument from authority. Scratch any "anti-authoritarian" social scientist and out it pops. And why? Because to conduct an argument requires appeal to some authority, and if you deny the complete authority of reason and of empirical test, and such like things, you must introduce the authority of people. At least you aren't ashamed to go right to the best source and, along with the Scholastics, say, "Aristotle dixit." Leo: ----- Now, I thought what I said was EVER SINCE Aristotle, as in the field of logic as philosophers have studied and practiced it in the centuries since it was first systematically developed by Aristotle. You know, one of these inductive arguments, where one might reasonably conclude that if the consensus of the field for centuries was that analogy was a form of logic, there would at least be a burden of proof on those who want to contend otherwise. And the line "if you deny the complete authority of reason and of empirical test", directed at me, might reasonably be considered an exercise in hyperbole which, if I am not mistaken, has generally been considered to a rhetorical trope ever since Aristotle. But perhaps we anti-authoritarian social scientists haven't been able to keep up with the development of predicate calculus, and so we haven't grasped how hyperbole is the new Ockham's razor of logic in the field of physics. (Sorry again; I guess we both must be passsive-aggressive.) Rahul: --------- Induction is, strictly speaking, not quite valid, and cannot be used if one wishes to ascertain absolute truth. Fortunately, no one on the list but the Catholics and the Stalinists is interested in that, so we can use induction as one of our chief modes of reasoning -- although care must be exercised that is not needed with deduction, such as choosing representative samples, inter alia. Leo: ------ What a relief! I can still use inductive logic. But the point I was trying to make when I raised this issue was that different forms of logic are relatively strong or weak in a very precise sense -- the difficulty with which one refutes them. For example, if I was to make the inductive argument that the Marxism1 list is a sectarian cesspool because five of its members (Herr Adolpho and his crew) are the worst sectarian assholes one could ever meet, it could be easily refuted by offering counter-factual examples from the list. Or if I was to make an analogy between the Marxism1 list and a dysfunctional family of Spartacists and Stalinists, one could simply show where the parallel began to break down. If on the other hand, I made a deductive argument that the Marxism1 list is a sectarian cesspool because the nature of the discourse which now dominates it is such that only hardened sectarians would put up with it, refutation would be considerably more difficult, and would have to engage my premises in a much more substantive fashion. (But then I haven't the absolute truth of the deductive syllogism knock me off my horse on the road to Damascus.) Rahul is using the descriptive terms strong and weak here in a much more general way -- as if an argument which uses induction or analogy is necessarily weak in the sense that it is a poor argument. This is not tenable: the way to show an argument is poor is not by reference to the form of logic it uses, but by revealing fallacies in whatever form of logic it uses. The fact that the logic is inductive or analagous only makes it that much easier to show the fallacy, should it exist. But to do that with respect to what I had to say about Hobbes and Leviathan would mean that Rahul would actually have to engage the argument I made, and that has yet to happen. Is there a counterfactual which demonstrates the use of a rhetoric-free logic? Certainly not in the form that Rahul presents his views. Finally, Rahul: This doesn't follow. Let me give you an example from science, just to show you I'm not biased. It seems that Galileo, at least at times, didn't understand Galilean relativity. In response to what he called Kepler's "mystical" view that tides were somehow related to the moon, he put forth the suggestion that perhaps they were simply sloshing of water because of the earth's motion. Anyone who actually understands what is being taught in freshman physics knows by the end of the first week that this is impossible. Now, Galileo's opinion on Galilean relativity is of the most profound irrelevance to anything. Because I like to use reason and Hobbes was one of the prophets of reason doesn't mean that his attitudes toward the importance of myth are something I should take into account. Many people would go along with Descartes's cogito without agreeing with or even caring that he used that merely as a starting point to "prove" the existence of God. Leo: ------ But your argument is based on the premise that there is no necessary relation between Hobbes views on Reason and logic, on the one hand, and Myth and rhetoric, on the other hand. This is a premise that can not simply be asserted, since it goes against the very terms in which Hobbes presents the issues. The problem is not simply that Hobbes chose to crown his work with a myth, but that he does so in a text which argues clearly and unequivocally against such myth; the point is not simply that Leviathan is a work of rhetorical mastery, but that Hobbes argues against the use of such rhetoric in the very same text. If we assume that the man was neither stupid nor intellectually indolent, we must grapple with that problem. Rahul: --------- On reading this over, I find I've said some things you might possibly construe as insulting. I still want to keep them, but, in my typical passive-aggressive way, let me apologize for them now. Leo: ------ Me too. --- from list marxism2-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---
Display software: ArchTracker © Malgosia Askanas, 2000-2005