Date: Sat, 30 Mar 2002 22:26:49 +1200
From: Margaret Trawick <trawick-AT-clear.net.nz>
Subject: Re: Question: Race/Color & Thinking modes


Salil -

Most likely it is because western countries - in particular the U.S. -
profited more from the labor of slaves brought from Africa, and their
descendents, than did anyone else.  It is a simple matter of labor claiming
on profit.

Margaret


----- Original Message -----
From: Salil Tripathi <salil61-AT-hotmail.com>
To: <postcolonial-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu>
Sent: Saturday, March 30, 2002 9:34 PM
Subject: RE: Question: Race/Color & Thinking modes


> This is *not* meant to provoke a harsh response from anyone; this is a
> genuine query. My question is this: if, as this exchange shows, the slave
> trade was practised by blacks (on west coast of Africa), Arabs (elsewhere
in
> Africa), and whites (from Europe and the US) why is it that the movement
to
> seek reparations and apology has targeted only western countries? I read
> last week of a lawsuit in the US, which will sue successor newspapers
today,
> for carrying advertisements in America in the 1840s and 1850s, for the
trade
> of slaves, and Wanted ads of absconding slaves. Why isn't there a similar
> move targeting the descendants of those in Africa -- blacks and Arabs --
who
> benefited from this trade? Or is there such a move, but the media has not
> been reporting it?
>
> Salil
>
> _________________________________________________________________
> Join the worlds largest e-mail service with MSN Hotmail.
> http://www.hotmail.com
>
>
>
>      --- from list postcolonial-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---



     --- from list postcolonial-AT-lists.village.virginia.edu ---